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Virtual private networks / Re: OpenVPN TAP + CARP + External AP = Problems
« on: July 22, 2022, 09:30:10 pm »
Thank you for your answer. I apologize for my ignorance, I come from the Linux world, and there I would never have dreamed of using a bridge the way I did here. However I am still perplexed, the chance of the aforementioned setup to "just work" without a rationale is pretty low in my humble opinion. Yet what actually defies my understanding is why those packets STILL flow through the OpenVPN TAP albeit coming FROM a physical interface. Why would there be a reason for the router to take all the packets FROM the other APs (but not the ones from the "master node") and handle them differently? And, most importantly, why would they flow in that interface?
I believe I have seen this kind of bridge called "transparent bridge", and that it would "act as a switch" (let's forget the term bridge for a second).
If that were to be the case the bridge would only "bridge" the two collision domains spanned by the LAN and the OpenVPN TAP, which is exactly what I was seeking.
EDIT:
On top of what I said, the aforementioned behavior SHOULD affect the WHOLE network, rather than just a piece of it, both APs and wired interface reside in the same collision domain and also have the same IP configuration, same net and broadcast. Why would a bridge impair clients that connect to Wifi, while it would leave alone wired clients?
Moreover, in this guide no IP address configuration on the bridge is mentioned (the purpose is the same): https://docs.netgate.com/pfsense/en/latest/recipes/openvpn-bridged.html .
I believe I have seen this kind of bridge called "transparent bridge", and that it would "act as a switch" (let's forget the term bridge for a second).
If that were to be the case the bridge would only "bridge" the two collision domains spanned by the LAN and the OpenVPN TAP, which is exactly what I was seeking.
EDIT:
On top of what I said, the aforementioned behavior SHOULD affect the WHOLE network, rather than just a piece of it, both APs and wired interface reside in the same collision domain and also have the same IP configuration, same net and broadcast. Why would a bridge impair clients that connect to Wifi, while it would leave alone wired clients?
Moreover, in this guide no IP address configuration on the bridge is mentioned (the purpose is the same): https://docs.netgate.com/pfsense/en/latest/recipes/openvpn-bridged.html .