Having some trouble and racking my brain, need some help with this and maybe another set of eyes.
2 sites: Host site A and remote site B
Both have OPNsense routers. Site A is host, static WAN address. Remote site is static WAN given by MAC LOCK at a school.
Router at A is inside network, NOT providing the sites WAN/LAN needs, just VPN access. Router at B is performing all router duties for the site.
Over the COVID season earlier this year, we dumped our site to site VPN after closing our remote office and pushed a Road Warrior VPN instead for people to access the network remote from home. As a result, I recreated the VPN rules to reflect a TAP adapter instead of TUN. Now, we are returning to work next week at a remote office which uses the Site-to-site OpenVPN config I had earlier. I setup interfaces and rules but I'm super confused as to why I can't simply get site B to ping site A from LAN. From S2SVPN interface I can ping the gateway at site A immediately, works great. I had to add a NIC to get more ports since my TAP adapter is still being used. This messed up all the interfaces on site A router which I had to fix. Site B router has stayed the same.
I'm sure it's firewall related, or so I think. I'm stumped. I've always had a hard time with the 'flow' of the firewall rules in both OPNsense and pfSense. It's terminology is not an issue, but I get source and destination mixed up depending on what interface I'm on. Any help is appreciated!
I've attached screen shots of the rules and pings. All shots are from Site B (Remote site) as I think if I can get LAN to send traffic over S2SVPN interface we will be all set. There are access rules for the 3 networks at Site A that need accessed by Site B.
Guess you need to enter the routes on either the client or push the correct routes in advanced column from the server. Like below but for your local servers IP. ::)
push "route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0"