This is a weird situation so please allow me to explain...
My internet provider provides both internet and IPTV. For Internet, it is a standard PPPoE situation. For IPTV, the way that they do it is that they use VLan 85 for a separate block of IP addresses, so IPTV boxes connected would need to send DHCP requests tagged with VLan ID 85 to get the addresses.
What I want to do in a nutshell -- I want to send out a DHCP request tagged with VLan ID 85 so I can get the IPTV IP address on my router. (Eventually, will try and setup IGMP proxy for my LAN as well but one step at a time for now.)
What my setup is:
WAN interface -- PPPoE on igb1
LAN interface -- igb0
what I did:
setup a VLAN with tag 85 on igb1
setup an assignment -- OPT1 with the VLAN just created
set the OPT1 Interface type to DHCP
The problem -- Packet capture show that the DHCP queries are not tagged with the VLAN ID tag. So they are being ignored...
What am I doing wrong? Any help would be greatly appreciated...
Hi,
If I'm not mistaken, you need to assign both interfaces (with and without vlan tag) to the pppoe interface.
The last entry in this port https://forum.opnsense.org/index.php?topic=9324.0 seems to point to that.
Best regards,
Ad
Thanks for the response!
The best I can parse on that last post you referred is that
1) The VLAN was still created on the physical interface
2) He added a point-to-point device (of which there are only 4 options, L2TP, PPP, PPPoE, and PPTP -- none seems to apply here)
3) I guess from that post his ICP requires that he does PPPoE dial-up using a VLAN tag and I'm glad that worked out for him... All the same I tried creating the VLAN on the PPPoE interface and nothing...
4) my question is that if I create an interface based on a VLAN presumably all packets emitted from that interface should be tagged with the VLAN id, but it seems that the DHCP Client isn't getting the tag...
attaching a cap file so you see what I mean...
Just to be sure, your pppoe contains both interfaces? Sometimes it helps to google a bit on the provider name, quite often other people have similar setups.
Not sure what you mean -- the PPPoE doesn't need to be VLAN tagged to work? Only the IPTV...
I've tried to google with no luck -- not many opnsense users with Shanghai Telcom, I guess. I did find other posts that this works with Merlin/OpenWRT, which is why I'm going down this rabbit hole...
As I understand it from the other post (I'm not using this myself), the pppoe interface (Interfaces -> Point to Point -> Devices) is linked to both interfaces (the one with vlan and the one without).
Ah, I see.
I think in that post he was trying to get PPPoE to work, and his ISP restricted that PPPoE to a VLAN. So essentially he setup a VLAN, and created a point-to-point link for the PPPoE dial-up to work. So I assume that that way, the request packets for PPPoE handshaking was tagged properly.
In my use case, the PPPoE works without VLAN tagging, but I need to send out a separate DHCP query tagged with a VLAN id. point-to-point doesn't seem to provide that functionality, and PPPoE is a separate interface (and would need to remain separate as if I tag it with a vlan id it wouldn't be able to access the internet).\
Back to my original question is, in the simplest case, if I create a vlan with a VLAN id of x, and assigns it to an interface with the type DHCP, why is the DHCP request from that interface not tagged with the VLAN id?
I think it's the same situation, a tagged interface over pppoe, logically the vlan tagged interface should be in the pppoe tunnel, but I don't have this kind of installation on our end.
Maybe someone else has other/more ideas.
Best regards,
Ad